Interesting question was posed by someone else on the forum. It is a case of a woman who's boyfriend was really interested in sex and now his sex drive is essentially "dead".
I'm not trying to hijack the thread, but start another one...see here's the thing.
Some of the responses I read were along the lines of telling her to "dump him" because a woman deserves to be sexually satisfied etc. PERSONALLY, I agree with this stance overall.
HOWEVER, Here's where it gets sticky (literally). What if I had come on here and said that my s/o had a "dead" sex drive. My guess is that there is an active double-standard in this case, because I think it's seen as acceptable for a woman to have a zero sex drive, but unacceptable for a man to.
I'm not bringing this up because I have an axe to grind. Just to open a discussion about he topic. For example, women have a lot of "normal" functions that could naturally tend to diminish their sex drive. Maybe this is part of the reason why it is more acceptable.
Anyway, when I read the thread and some of the responses (admittedly I did not read all...yet), it just occurred to me that if a guy came on here and said that a few months after he started dating his girl her sex drive diminished to nothing, there would be a lot less "surprise".
Of course, my wife would give me the "finger" for suggesting this, but rationally, and logically, do I have a point or not? What do you ladies (and gents) think?
Cheers.



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