She was upset that Maslow would think that because in her mind then that gives a man an excuse to sexually assault a woman into sex. The professor assured her that in reality all Maslow meant was that if our parents didn't have sex we wouldn't exist and he totally sympathized with how she was upset and thought she was correct.
Later in the class however the same professor said that a wife shouldn't refuse sex from her husband because it was a "need".
Wouldn't that be the same thing in the case of the husband that if it was a "need"" then the husband has an excuse to sexually assault her?
Like what did he mean that it was a need for a husband to sleep with his wife but that in general we can't say that a man needs to have sex.
Is he contradicting himself? I don't get it.
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