Is it possible for a woman to experience greater "physical sexual satisfaction" from a sexual encounter (with or without intercourse) where no orgasm is achieved than from a sexual encounter (with or without intercourse) where an orgasm is achieved?
The questions originates from a conversation with some of my girlfriends. Someone used the example of a sexual encounter she had where the man digitally petetrated her vagina and she masturbated until orgasm. The intercourse afterward was not great. Then with her next partner there was no orgasm or even intercourse the first time they were intimate. Just heavy making out - touching, kissing, and oral sex on him by her. However, she swears that she felt greater sexual stimulation and greater satisfaction during the latter encounter even though it did not involve an orgasm or intercourse, and the first one did.
Is this possible? Doesn't the orgasm with the first guy imply that the encounter brought greater sexual satisfaction or am I missing something? How could the second scenario, as described, be more sexually stimulating and satisfying than the first? Or could it even?
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