I'm not trying to hijack the thread, but start another one...see here's the thing.
Some of the responses I read were along the lines of telling her to "dump him" because a woman deserves to be sexually satisfied etc. PERSONALLY, I agree with this stance overall.
HOWEVER, Here's where it gets sticky (literally). What if I had come on here and said that my s/o had a "dead" sex drive. My guess is that there is an active double-standard in this case, because I think it's seen as acceptable for a woman to have a zero sex drive, but unacceptable for a man to.
I'm not bringing this up because I have an axe to grind. Just to open a discussion about he topic. For example, women have a lot of "normal" functions that could naturally tend to diminish their sex drive. Maybe this is part of the reason why it is more acceptable.
Anyway, when I read the thread and some of the responses (admittedly I did not read all...yet), it just occurred to me that if a guy came on here and said that a few months after he started dating his girl her sex drive diminished to nothing, there would be a lot less "surprise".
Of course, my wife would give me the "finger" for suggesting this, but rationally, and logically, do I have a point or not? What do you ladies (and gents) think?
Cheers.
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